QUESTION 2 Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option? A. X-chkp-sid B. Accept-Charset C. Proxy-Authorization D. Application Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________. A. SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI B. WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate C. CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup D. SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole Correct Answer: A Backup and Restore These options let you: 1. Back up the Gaia OS configuration and the firewall database to a compressed file 2. 2020 Latest lead4pass 156-215.80 PDF and VCE dumps Download Restore the Gaia OS configuration and the firewall database from a compressed file To back up a configuration: 1. Right-click the Security Gateway. 2. Select Backup and Restore > Backup. The Backup window opens. 3. Select the backup location. Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/5375-checkpoint-gateway-firewall-backup-through-smart-console
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness? A. SSL B. Captive Portal C. PKI D. RSA Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled? 2020 Latest lead4pass 156-215.80 PDF and VCE dumps Download A. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked B. Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked. C. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked. D. Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule? A. To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base B. To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports C. To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database D. To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway Correct Answer: A These are basic access control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases: 1. Stealth rule that prevents direct access to the Security Gateway. 2. Cleanup rule that drops all traffic that is not allowed by the earlier rules. There is also an implied rule that drops all traffic, but you can use the Cleanup rule to log the traffic. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm
QUESTION 8 Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ________ all traffic. A. Accept; redirect B. Accept; drop C. Redirect; drop D. Drop; accept 2020 Latest lead4pass 156-215.80 PDF and VCE dumps Download Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
A. Data Center Layer is an inline layer in the Access Control Policy. B. By default all layers are shared with all policies. C. If a connection is dropped in Network Layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer. D. If a connection is accepted in Network-layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 With which command can you view the running configuration of Gaia-based system. A. show conf-active B. show configuration active C. show configuration D. show running-configuration Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed? A. Distributed B. Standalone C. Bridge Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What are the three types of UserCheck messages? A. inform, ask, and block B. block, action, and warn C. action, inform, and ask D. ask, block, and notify Correct Answer: A Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_DataLossPrevention_Ad minGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/ CP_R80.10_DataLossPrevention_AdminGuide/94711
QUESTION 13 What happens if the identity of a user is known? A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal. B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox. C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped. D. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action. Correct Answer: D
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312-50 exam: A Certified Ethical Hacker is a skilled professional who understands and knows how to look for weaknesses and vulnerabilities in target systems and uses the same knowledge and tools as a malicious hacker, but in a lawful and legitimate manner to assess the security posture of a target system(s). The CEH credential certifies individuals in the specific network security discipline of Ethical Hacking from a vendor-neutral perspective. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/312-50.html exam.
QUESTION 1 Most cases of insider abuse can be traced to individuals who are introverted, incapable of dealing with stress or conflict, and frustrated with their job, office politics, and lack of respect or promotion. Disgruntled employees may pass company secrets and intellectual property to competitors for monitory benefits. Here are some of the symptoms of a disgruntled employee,. These disgruntled employees are the biggest threat to enterprise security. How do you deal with these threats? (Select 2 answers) A. Frequently leaves work early, arrive late or call in sick B. Spends time surfing the Internet or on the phone C. Responds in a confrontational, angry, or overly aggressive way to simple requests or comments D. Always negative; finds fault with everything E. Limit access to the applications they can run on their desktop computers and enforce strict work hour rules F. By implementing Virtualization technology from the desktop to the data centre, organizations can isolate different environments with varying levels of access and security to various employees G. Organizations must ensure that their corporate data is centrally managed and delivered to users just and when needed H. Limit Internet access, e-mail communications, access to social networking sites and job hunting portals Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 What do you conclude from the nmap results below? Staring nmap V. 3.10ALPHA0 (www.insecure.org/map/) (The 1592 ports scanned but not shown below are in state: closed) PortStateService 21/tcpopenftp 25/tcpopensmtp 80/tcpopenhttp 443/tcpopenhttps Remote operating system guess: Too many signatures match the reliability guess the OS. Nmap run completed 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 91.66 seconds A. The system is a Windows Domain Controller. B. The system is not firewalled. C. The system is not running Linux or Solaris. D. The system is not properly patched. Correct Answer: B There is no reports of any ports being filtered.
QUESTION 3 How does traceroute map the route a packet travels from point A to point B? A. Uses a TCP timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceeded in transit message B. Manipulates the value of the time to live (TTL) within packet to elicit a time exceeded in transit message C. Uses a protocol that will be rejected by gateways on its way to the destination D. Manipulates the flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The traditional traceroute sends out ICMP ECHO packets with a TTL of one, and increments the TTL until the destination has been reached. By printing the gateways that generate ICMP time exceeded messages along the way, it is able to determine the path packets take to reach the destination. The problem is that with the widespread use of firewalls on the Internet today, many of the packets that traceroute sends out end up being filtered, making it impossible to completely trace the path to the destination.
How would you overcome the Firewall restriction on ICMP ECHO packets? A. Firewalls will permit inbound TCP packets to specific ports that hosts sitting behind the firewall are listening for connections. By sending out TCP SYN packets instead of ICMP ECHO packets, traceroute can bypass the most common firewall filters. B. Firewalls will permit inbound UDP packets to specific ports that hosts sitting behind the firewall are listening for connections. By sending out TCP SYN packets instead of ICMP ECHO packets, traceroute can bypass the most common firewall filters. C. Firewalls will permit inbound UDP packets to specific ports that hosts sitting behind the firewall are listening for connections. By sending out TCP SYN packets instead of ICMP ECHO packets, traceroute can bypass the most common firewall filters. D. Do not use traceroute command to determine the path packets take to reach the destination instead use the custom hacking tool JOHNTHETRACER and run with the command E. \> JOHNTHETRACER www.eccouncil.org -F -evade Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 When a normal TCP connection starts, a destination host receives a SYN (synchronize/start) packet from a source host and sends back a SYN/ACK (synchronize acknowledge). The destination host must then hear an ACK (acknowledge) of the SYN/ACK before the connection is established. This is referred to as the “TCP three-way handshake.” While waiting for the ACK to the SYN ACK, a connection queue of finite size on the destination host keeps track of connections waiting to be completed. This queue typically empties quickly since the ACK is expected to arrive a few milliseconds after the SYN ACK. How would an attacker exploit this design by launching TCP SYN attack? A. Attacker generates TCP SYN packets with random destination addresses towards a victim host B. Attacker floods TCP SYN packets with random source addresses towards a victim host C. Attacker generates TCP ACK packets with random source addresses towards a victim host D. Attacker generates TCP RST packets with random source addresses towards a victim host Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 The programmers on your team are analyzing the free, open source software being used to run FTP services on a server in your organization. They notice that there is excessive number of functions in the source code that might lead to buffer overflow. These C++ functions do not check bounds. Identify the line the source code that might lead to buffer overflow.
A. Line number 31. B. Line number 15 C. Line number 8 D. Line number 14 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which tool/utility can help you extract the application layer data from each TCP connection from a log file into separate files? A. Snort B. argus C. TCPflow D. Tcpdump Correct Answer: C Tcpflow is a program that captures data transmitted as part of TCP connections (flows), and stores the data in a way that is convenient for protocol analysis or debugging. A program like \\’tcpdump\\’ shows a summary of packets seen on the wire, but usually doesn\\’t store the data that\\’s actually being transmitted. In contrast, tcpflow reconstructs the actual data streams and stores each flow in a separate file for later analysis.
QUESTION 8 Steven is the senior network administrator for Onkton Incorporated, an oil well drilling company in Oklahoma City. Steven and his team of IT technicians are in charge of keeping inventory for the entire company; including computers, software, and oil well equipment. To keep track of everything, Steven has decided to use RFID tags on their entire inventory so they can be scanned with either a wireless scanner or a handheld scanner. These RFID tags hold as much information as possible about the equipment they are attached to. When Steven purchased these tags, he made sure they were as state of the art as possible. One feature he really liked was the ability to disable RFID tags if necessary. This comes in very handy when the company actually sells oil drilling equipment to other companies. All Steven has to do is disable the RFID tag on the sold equipment and it cannot give up any information that was previously stored on it. What technology allows Steven to disable the RFID tags once they are no longer needed? A. Newer RFID tags can be disabled by using Terminator Switches built into the chips B. RFID Kill Switches built into the chips enable Steven to disable them C. The company\\’s RFID tags can be disabled by Steven using Replaceable ROM technology D. The technology used to disable an RFIP chip after it is no longer needed, or possibly stolen, is called RSA Blocking Correct Answer: D http://www.rsa.com/rsalabs/node.asp?id=2060
QUESTION 9 Joe Hacker is going wardriving. He is going to use PrismStumbler and wants it to go to a GPS mapping software application. What is the recommended and well- known GPS mapping package that would interface with PrismStumbler? Select the best answer. A. GPSDrive B. GPSMap C. WinPcap D. Microsoft Mappoint Correct Answer: A GPSDrive is a Linux GPS mapping package. It recommended to be used to send PrismStumbler data to so that it can be mapped. GPSMap is a generic term and not a real software package. WinPcap is a packet capture library for Windows. It is used to capture packets and deliver them to other programs for analysis. As it is for Windows, it isn\\’t going to do what Joe Hacker is wanting to do. Microsoft Mappoint is a Windows application. PrismStumbler is a Linux application. Thus, these two are not going to work well together.
QUESTION 10 What type of Virus is shown here?
A. Macro Virus B. Cavity Virus C. Boot Sector Virus D. Metamorphic Virus E. Sparse Infector Virus Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which is the right sequence of packets sent during the initial TCP three way handshake? A. FIN, FIN-ACK, ACK B. SYN, URG, ACK C. SYN, ACK, SYN-ACK D. SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK Correct Answer: D A TCP connection always starts with a request for synchronization, a SYN, the reply to that would be another SYN together with a ACK to acknowledge that the last package was delivered successfully and the last part of the three way handshake should be only an ACK to acknowledge that the SYN reply was recived.
QUESTION 12 Sara is making use of Digest Authentication for her Web site. Why is this considered to be more secure than Basic authentication? A. Basic authentication is broken B. The password is never sent in clear text over the network C. The password sent in clear text over the network is never reused. D. It is based on Kerberos authentication protocol Correct Answer: B Digest access authentication is one of the agreed methods a web page can use to negotiate credentials with a web user (using the HTTP protocol). This method builds upon (and obsoletes) the basic authentication scheme, allowing user identity to be established without having to send a password in plaintext over the network.
QUESTION 13 When working with Windows systems, what is the RID of the true administrator account? A. 500 B. 501 C. 1000 D. 1001 E. 1024 F. 512 Correct Answer: A Because of the way in which Windows functions, the true administrator account always has a RID of 500.
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PassexamLeader shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft Web Applications 70-487 exam “Developing Microsoft Azure and Web Services” https://www.lead4pass.com/70-487.html (202 Q&As). Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 70-487 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Accessing Data (20-25%)
Querying and Manipulating Data by Using the Entity Framework (20-25%)
Creating and Consuming Web API-based services (20-25%)
Designing and Implementing Web Services (15-20%)
Deploying Web Applications and Services (15-20%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this certification are professional developers that use Visual Studio 2017 and the Microsoft® .NET Core Framework to design and develop Web solutions. Candidates should have a minimum of three to five years of experience developing ASP.NET MVC-based solutions. Additionally, candidates should be able to demonstrate the following:
Experience designing and developing Web applications that access various (local and remote) data and services including Windows Azure
Experience with the full software development life cycle of data and service solutions
Experience developing and deploying to multi-tier environments, including Windows Azure
Experience designing and developing asynchronous solutions
Experience creating and consuming HTTP services
Microsoft Web Applications 70-487 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC Web API image management application. The application must meet the following requirements: It must send or receive image data without the use of a buffer. It must allow up to 4 MB of image data to be received. It must allow up to 3 MB of image data to be sent. You need to complete the code to meet the requirements. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 You are developing a web application by using Microsoft ASP.NET MVC. The application manages company employees and managers. Each employee is assigned to a manager. You need to write a LINQ query to retrieve the list of managers and their respective employees. How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate keywords to the correct targets. Each keyword may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 You have a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service named Service1. You deploy the WCF service at the root level of a website in Azure. The address of the Azure website is http://service1.azurewebsites.net/. You need to generate a .cs file that can be used to interact with Service1. What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 You are developing a library management application that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. The application has a method that returns check outs filtered by date. The Book class is shown below.
You must filter the data on the SQL server before it is returned to the application server. You need to return books checked out more recently than the entered date. Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A The difference is that IQueryable is the interface that allows LINQ-to-SQL (LINQ.-to- anything really) to work. So if you further refine your query on an IQueryable, that query will be executed in the database, if possible. For the IEnumerable case, it will be LINQ-to-object, meaning that all objects matching the original query will have to be loaded into memory from the database.
QUESTION 5 You need to build the connection from ReportApp to read the search data. The solution must minimize development effort. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 6 Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table entity. There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and whether the query should return only late flights. Results should be ordered by flight name. You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that query results are returned as quickly as possible. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Use the WasLate property as the row key. B. Use the Airline property as the row key. C. Use the WasLate property as the partition key D. Use the Arrival property as the row key. E. Use the Airline property as the partition key. F. Use the Flight property as the row key. Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 7 You add a .NET application to a Docker container and deploy the container to Azure Service Fabric. You use a corporate base image that includes Microsoft SQL Server for storing data. You deploy the application to development and staging environments. No issues are reported. You deploy the application to your production environment. Data is not persisted in the production environment. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do? A. Install Docker tools in the container. B. In the docker-compose.override.yml file, configure the db service to start before the web application. C. Update the connection string in the web.config file to point to the SQL Server database in the container. D. Remove SQL Server from the base image and convert the database to Azure SQL Database. Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-fabric/service-fabric-host-app-in-a-container
QUESTION 8 You are developing an ASP.NET Web API to process customer and product data that is stored in separate Azure SQL Database instances. The API will use the latest versions of the .NET Framework and ADO.NET to access and modify data. Connection stings for the customer and product databases are stored in string variables named connectionStringCustomers and connectionStringProducts, respectively. The API must elastic database transactions. You need to implement the distributed transaction. How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 You are developing an order processing application that uses the Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. The application has a method that returns orders filtered by date. The Order class is shown below.
You must filter the data on the SQL server before it is returned to the application server. You need to return orders more recent than the entered date. Which code segment should you use?
QUESTION 11 You are developing a WCF service that compares several data sources. The service takes a long time to complete. The service must meet the following requirements: The client must be able to continue processing while the service is running. The service must initiate communication with the client application when processing is complete. You need to choose a message pattern to meet the requirements. Which message pattern should you choose? A. One Way B. Streaming C. Duplex D. Request/Reply Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client request. You need to choose an instancing mode. Which instancing mode should you use? A. Single B. PerRequest C. PerCall D. Multiple E. PerSession Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 You are developing an application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. You need to ensure transactional data integrity. Which isolation level should you use? A. Serializable B. ReadCommitted C. ReadUncommitted D. Normal Correct Answer: C Serializable provides the highest level of data integrity. References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.isolationlevel(v=vs.110)
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PassexamLeader shares online exam exercise questions all year round! CompTIA Security+ sy0-501 exam “CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam” https://www.lead4pass.com/sy0-501.html (600 Q&As) Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco sy0-501 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!
CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification IT professionals should earn. It establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Security+ incorporates best practices in hands-on trouble-shooting to ensure security professionals have practical security problem-solving skills. Cybersecurity professionals with Security+ know how to address security incidents – not just identify them.
The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems
to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques;
participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations.
The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
CompTIA Security+ sy0-501 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 As part of the SDLC, a third party is hired to perform a penetration test. The third party will have access to the source code, integration tests, and network diagrams. Which of the following BEST describes the assessment being performed? A. Black box B. Regression C. White box D. Fuzzing Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A botnet has hit a popular website with a massive number of GRE-encapsulated packets to perform a DDoS attack. News outlets discover a certain type of refrigerator was exploited and used to send outbound packets to the website that crashed. To which of the following categories does the refrigerator belong? A. SoC B. ICS C. IoT D. MFD Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 An organization\\’s internal auditor discovers that large sums of money have recently been paid to a vendor that management does not recognize. The IT security department is asked to investigate the organizations the organization\\’s ERP system to determine how the accounts payable module has been used to make these vendor payments. The IT security department finds the following security configuration for the accounts payable module: New Vendor Entry ?Required Role: Accounts Payable Clerk New Vendor Approval ?Required Role: Accounts Payable Clerk Vendor Payment Entry ?Required Role: Accounts Payable Clerk Vendor Payment Approval ?Required Role: Accounts Payable Manager Which of the following changes to the security configuration of the accounts payable module would BEST mitigate the risk?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate? A. It can protect multiple domains B. It provides extended site validation C. It does not require a trusted certificate authority D. It protects unlimited subdomains Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 New magnetic locks were ordered for an entire building. In accordance with company policy, employee safety is the top priority. In case of a fire where electricity is cut, which of the following should be taken into consideration when installing the new locks? A. Fail safe B. Fault tolerance C. Fail secure D. Redundancy Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following would be MOST effective in reducing tailgating incidents? A. Mantrap B. Faraday cage C. Motion detection D. Bollards Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue? A. Botnet B. Ransomware C. Polymorphic malware D. Armored virus Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A chief Financial Officer (CFO) has asked the Chief Information Officer (CISO) to provide responses to a recent audit report detailing deficiencies in the organization security controls. The CFO would like to know ways in which the organization can improve its authorization controls. Given the request by the CFO, which of the following controls should the CISO focus on in the report? (Select Three) A. Password complexity policies B. Hardware tokens C. Biometric systems D. Role-based permissions E. One time passwords F. Separation of duties G. Multifactor authentication H. Single sign-on I. Lease privilege Correct Answer: DFI
QUESTION 9 An administrator has configured a new Linux server with the FTP service. Upon verifying that the service was configured correctly, the administrator has several users test the FTP service. Users report that they are able to connect to the FTP service and download their personal files, however, they cannot transfer new files to the server. Which of the following will most likely fix the uploading issue for the users? A. Create an ACL to allow the FTP service write access to user directories B. Set the Boolean selinux value to allow FTP home directory uploads C. Reconfigure the ftp daemon to operate without utilizing the PSAV mode D. Configure the FTP daemon to utilize PAM authentication pass through user permissions Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Joe notices there are several user accounts on the local network generating spam with embedded malicious code. Which of the following technical control should Joe put in place to BEST reduce these incidents? A. Account lockout B. Group Based Privileges C. Least privilege D. Password complexity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A product manager is concerned about continuing operations at a facility located in a region undergoing significant political unrest. After consulting with senior management, a decision is made to suspend operations at the facility until the situation stabilizes. Which of the following risk management strategies BEST describes management\\’s response? A. Deterrence B. Mitigation C. Avoidance D. Acceptance Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A group of non-profit agencies wants to implement a cloud service to share resources with each other and minimize costs. Which of the following cloud deployment models BEST describes this type of effort? A. Public B. Hybrid C. Community D. Private Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which of the following is an asymmetric function that generates a new and separate key every time it runs? A. RSA B. DSA C. DHE D. HMAC E. PBKDF2 Correct Answer: C
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Free test Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-402 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Click the Exhibit button to view information collected by the architect during the Resource Layer discussions.
Based on the requirements, the Citrix Administrative team should use _______to manage Citrix policies and __________ to manage Microsoft settings. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. Citrix Studio; Workspace Environment Manager B. Active Directory Group Policy Objects; Active Directory Group Policy Objects C. Citrix Studio; Local Policies D. Active Directory Group Policy Objects; Workspace Environment Manager E. Citrix Studio; Active Directory Group Policy Objects Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is assessing a Provisioning Services farm. The farm has access to one Store; the vDisks in the Store are shown in the Exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the vDisks.
How much RAM should the architect allocate to each of the Provisioning Services servers to optimally cache existing vDisk data while NOT over-provisioning resources? A. 14 GB B. 17 GB C. 12 GB D. 9 GB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a XenApp and XenDesktop environment and needs to design machine catalogs and Delivery Groups. Users should only be able to access their assigned resources. Click on the Exhibit button to view the design requirements.
What is the appropriate design using the minimum number of machine catalogs and Delivery Groups, based on the requirements in the Exhibit? A. 1 machine catalog, 2 Delivery Groups, and no tagging B. 2 machine catalogs, 3 Delivery Groups, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version C. 3 machine catalogs, 4 Delivery Groups, and no tagging D. 1 machine catalog, 1 Delivery Group, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The architect has identified printing requirements for certain user groups and locations, as shown in the Exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.
Currently, no printer settings or policies have been configured, and as such, the environment is using default settings. Universal Print Server will NOT be used in this design. Which two settings should the architect configure to allow the Executives group to achieve the desired print behavior and to ensure their print jobs are optimally routed? (Choose two.) A. Set Auto-create Client Printers policy to auto-create local printers only B. Enable Auto-create PDF Universal Printer policy C. Set Direct connections to print servers policy to Enabled D. Set Direct connections to print servers policy to Disabled E. Configure Session Printers policy F. Configure Default Printers policy G. Set Auto-create Client Printers policy to auto-create all client printers Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The table in the Exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads. Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the VMs for User Group 1 to______GB of RAM. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. 256 B. 128 C. 384 D. 196 E. 64 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new XenApp and XenDesktop Service environment. During discussions about the Access Layer design, the architect gathers the following requirements: Minimize management overhead where possible. Multi-factor authentication should be used for all user access to the XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Users should receive different Citrix policy settings depending on whether their connection is external to the internal network. Which deployment option should the architect recommend for the design? A. NetScaler Gateway on-premises with StoreFront on-premises B. NetScaler Gateway on-premises with Workspace in Cloud C. NetScaler Gateway Service with Workspace in Cloud D. NetScaler Gateway Service with StoreFront on-premises Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a XenApp and XenDesktop environment and needs to design machine catalogs and Delivery Groups. Users should only be able to access their assigned resources. Click on the Exhibit button to view the design requirements.
What is the appropriate design using the minimum number of machine catalogs and Delivery Groups, based on the requirements in the Exhibit? A. 1 machine catalog, 2 Delivery Groups, and no tagging B. 2 machine catalogs, 3 Delivery Groups, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version C. 3 machine catalogs, 4 Delivery Groups, and no tagging D. 1 machine catalog, 1 Delivery Group, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is implementing a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The customer has stated the following requirements: All users must be able to aggregate resources from all Sites. Both Sites should be treated as one equivalent farm set. User connections should be directed to the New York Site with failover to San Francisco. Click the Exhibit button to view the StoreFront configurations. Exhibit 1
Exhibit 2
Based on the configurations, requirement 1 is_____, requirement 2 is _______, and requirement 3 is_______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. met; met; NOT met B. NOT met; NOT met; NOT met C. NOT met; met; NOT met D. met; NOT met; NOT met E. met; NOT met; met F. met; met; met G. NOT met; met; met Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A large retail environment includes a StoreFront server group with two servers, each with 2 vCPUs and 4 GB of RAM. The server group handles about 25,000 user connections per hour, with a majority of the users accessing the environment using native Receiver. Workspace Control has been disabled for the environment. A Citrix Architect learns that the company will soon merge with another retail chain. The XenApp and XenDesktop environment must double its capacity, and the StoreFront server group is expected to handle about 40,000 user connections per hour. What should the architect do to meet the expected load while maintaining high availability with optimal resource allocation for the StoreFront component? A. Add a third StoreFront server with 2 vCPUs and 4 GB of RAM. B. Allocate an additional 2 vCPUs to each existing StoreFront server. C. Train users to begin accessing the environment using Receiver for Web. D. Allocate an additional 2 GB of RAM to each existing StoreFront server. E. Enable Workspace Control for all StoreFront stores. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The architect has identified the User Layer requirements, as shown in the Exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.
Additionally, management at the organization has identified the following general Access Layer requirements: A multi-factor authentication method is required for any connections to the XenApp and XenDesktop environment originating from outside the corporate network. External connections must be authenticated by a NetScaler Gateway virtual server located in a DMZ network. Internal connection traffic should NOT leave the internal corporate network. Which Access Layer feature should the architect configure to meet the security requirements of the Accountants group? A. SmartControl B. Endpoint analysis scan C. SmartAccess D. Federated Authentication Service Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The architect has identified the requirements, based on the assessment and early stages of the design. Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.
Additionally, the IT team has identified the following general requirements: The provisioning strategy should be compatible with the planned design decisions The provisioning strategy should minimize the time required to perform image and application updates Which provisioning method should the architect use for the environment based on the design decisions and requirements shown? A. Machine Creation Services B. Provisioning Services C. Manual Provisioning D. Machine Creation Services with App Layering E. Provisioning Services with App Layering F. Manual Provisioning with App Layering Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The architect has determined the user groups and FlexCast model listed in the Exhibit during the high-level design. Click the Exhibit button to view the user group and FlexCast model details.
Which graphics protocol should the architect select for the highlighted group in the Exhibit? A. Thinwire (Legacy) B. Framehawk C. Thinwire+ D. H.264 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement a new XenDesktop environment for an engineering company. The IT department has purchased 1,000 XenDesktop Enterprise licenses. They will deploy Microsoft Office productivity applications to all users. Users access XenApp sessions from company offices using thin client devices and remotely through NetScaler Gateway using personal devices. The company requires IT to produce a report of all XenApp connection failures for the previous year. Which two actions does the architect need to take to support these requirements? (Choose two.) A. Purchase XenDesktop Platinum licenses. B. Purchase NetScaler Gateway Universal licenses. C. Configure GroomSessionsRetentionDays to 365 days. D. Implement NetScaler Management and Analytics System (MAS). E. Configure GroomFailuresRetentionDays to 365 days. Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 1 Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts? A. PHP B. C# C. Java D. Ruby E. any programming language Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants? A. scope tenant contract B. scope private contract C. scope intertenant contract D. scope global contract Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services? A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define theLayer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define the logical device content, create the service graph. B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and information. C. Create the tenant, define theLayer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical device content, apply the graph to the contract subject. D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it? A. API B. port group C. URI D. PR Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.) A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal. B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches. C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain. D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet. E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode. F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 6 Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you configure the logical device and associated concrete devices? A. within the tenant context B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI C. within the management tenant D. on the service device itself Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.) A. vPC peerlink B. vPC peer keepalive C. vPC domain D. vPC protection policy Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol? A. OpFlex B. RIP C. OpenFlow D. EIGRP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS? A. network ports B. port groups C. ACLs D. VLANs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI? A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway. B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine. C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists. D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.) A. A tenant can have multiple contexts. B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address domain. C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world. D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12 As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations? A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions. B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations. C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication. D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 In Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done? 1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs. 2) Create policies to define connectivity with permit, deny, log, and so on. 3)Create EPGs. A. 3, 2, 1 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 2, 3, 1 D. 1, 3, 2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.) A. JSON / XML B. LLDP C. RESTful API D. HTTP / HTTPS E. STP F. OVA Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 15 Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.) A. host connectivity scalability B. spine interconnectivity C. leaf interconnectivity D. high 40-Gb/s port density Correct Answer: CD
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QUESTION 1 Your company uses Project Professional 2013. You are building a schedule by using predecessors to help determine a logical duration. The following image shows a baselined list of tasks with predecessors:You have been told that Task C is optional, and you recommend inactivating the task to keep it visible on the schedule. You need to determine what the results are to the schedule when inactivating Task C. How should you answer? A. The finish date is reduced by four working days, cost remains unchanged, and baseline cost is reduced by $400. B. The finish date is reduced by five working days, cost remains unchanged, and baseline cost is unchanged. C. The finish date is reduced by six working days, cost is reduced by $400, and baseline cost is reduced by $400. D. The finish date is reduced by four calendar days, cost is reduced by $400, and baseline cost is reduced by $400. E. The finish date is reduced by six calendar days, cost is reduced by $400, and baseline cost is unchanged. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 You use Project Professional 2013 to manage a project that has customer-required milestone completion dates. You need to see graphically that your milestones have slipped beyond your customer- required dates. What should you add to the project milestones? A. a Must finish on constraint B. a finish date C. a deadline D. a Finish no later than constraint Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 You are a project manager, and you successfully complete a server consolidation project for one of your data centers. You use Project Standard 2013 to plan and track the work. Your manager wants you to begin similar projects on two other data centers. You need to create a template based on the plan you used to manage the first data center consolidation project. You need to ensure that the template has all baseline and actual data values removed. What should you do? A. Within Microsoft Windows Explorer, create a copy of the original project plan and rename the file type from .mpp to .mpt. B. Open the plan and use the Move Project button to set the start date to the start of the new project. Save the project file as Template.mpp. C. Open the plan and reset the percent complete for each task to 0. Save the file as Template.mpp. D. Open the plan and save the plan as a Project Template. E. Open the plan, and copy and paste all of the task information into a new plan. Save the plan as a Project Template. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 You are a Project Manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a critical project, which is synchronized with a Microsoft SharePoint Task List. One of your team members has changed a task priority to High in SharePoint, and you do not see the changed data in Project Professional 2013. What should you do? A. Use the Organizer to copy the Priority field from the SharePoint Task List. B. Map the Priority field from SharePoint to Project by using File, Info. C. Map the Priority field from SharePoint to Project by using Project, Custom Fields, Import Field. D. Use the Task Information box to copy the Priority field from the SharePoint Task List. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You have been told to build multiple project files for a program. You need to have all of your projects start with auto scheduled tasks by default. What should you do? A. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for each project. B. Use the Task Mode field to change the first task to Auto Schedule, then copy down for all of your tasks. C. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for all new projects. D. Highlight all of the tasks in your schedule and select the Auto Schedule button. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Your company uses Project Professional 2013. An organization with project managers of varying expertise wants a simple, standard view that displays overall project status. You need an out-of-box function that provides the ability to assess current, baseline, and actual work for the project. Which view should you use? A. Project Overview dashboard B. Resource Allocation view C. Work Overview dashboard D. Relationship Diagram view Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on a software development project, and the Project Management Office (PMO) requires you to enter project costs associated with all work completed on your project. You receive invoices for 55,000 for software licenses and $150 for supplies. Software licensing costs are associated with Task A: Obtain Software License. Supply costs are associated with Task H: Project Management Administration. You need to enter the costs into your project schedule. Which two steps should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Create a cost resource for Supplies and Software License. B. Create a material resource for Supplies and Software License. C. Assign the Supply cost resource to Task H, assign the Software License cost resource to Task A, and enter the actual costs using the Task Usage – Cost table for both Task H and A. D. Assign the Supply material resource to Task H, assign the Software License material resource to Task A, and enter the actual costs using the Task Usage – Cost table for both Task H and A. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8 You are managing a project by using Project Professional 2013, and you notice a potential scheduling problem indicated by wavy red lines under some of the dates in the Finish column. You need to resolve the issue. What should you do? A. Recalculate the project schedule. B. Adjust the resource assignment on the task to when the resource is available. C. Activate Task Inspector for the task to decide if adjustments are necessary. D. Adjust the finish date on the task to a date in the future. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 You manage a project schedule by using Project Professional 2013. You are concerned about project costs. After viewing the Cost Variance column, you realize that the project has a cost variance of 55,000.00. You need to view graphically which tasks and resources are causing the $5,000.00 cost variance. What should you do? A. View the Resource Graph\\’s Cumulative Cost view. B. View the Task Cost Overview report. C. View the Over Budget Tasks report. D. View the Cost Overrun report. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You have created a project which involves three other colleagues who are also using Project Professional 2013. You and your colleagues are over budget and cannot spend any more money on this project. To ensure that the latest version of the project file is always the one being used, you need to save, share, and sync this project plan File among your colleagues without using email. What should you do? A. Save and sync your project by using SkyDrive. B. Save and sync selected tasks in the project by using SkyDrive. C. Save and sync your project to a shared Microsoft Excel file. D. Save and sync selected tasks in your Microsoft SharePoint Tasks List. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work in a software development project, which is in progress and has reached 60% of actual progress. Your company decides to use the new Project Reports views to communicate all the project progress across the key users. They also decide to report information about a specific period only, normally one month behind the current day. You need to access the report view that your company previously created; however, you must only modify the period displayed in the report and ensure that another period will not be presented. What should you do? A. Access your report and change the scale by zooming in and out. B. Access your report and create a new Date Range group. C. Access your report and use the default Date Range filter. D. Access your report view and edit the time category under the field list pane. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 You are a project manager who uses Microsoft Excel 2013. Your company decides to migrate all of the current projects in Microsoft Excel 2013 to Project Professional 2013. They allow all employees to spend 8 hours migrating each project plan. Your current and unique project plan has 462 tasks with duration in days, and resources have been assigned and named. You have a status meeting in two days. You need to provide your project\\’s information by using Project Professional 2013. What should you do? A. Create a new project plan in Project Professional 2013 and use the Gantt Chart Wizard to import from an Excel Workbook. B. Rename the Excel file from .xlsx to .mpx, and open it by using Project Professional 2013, activating the Mapping Excel Workbook feature. Map tasks, durations, and resources assigned into Microsoft Project fields. C. Open the Excel File .xlsx directly from Project Professional 2013, which will convert and map tasks, durations, and resources assigned into Project fields. D. Create a VBA macro by using the Excel Record Macro feature to import all tasks, durations, and resources assigned from Excel into your new Project Professional 2013 project plan. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 You are an independent project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on multiple projects for different customers and use only one project to manage their tasks. You invoice your customers on a monthly basis. To identify tasks that have not been invoiced, you create a custom field called Not Invoiced. Without losing the original project tasks\\’ sort order, and without hiding any information, you need to see all tasks which have not been invoiced. You create a custom filter based on the Not Invoiced custom field. What should you do next? A. Apply the custom filter. B. Export to Microsoft Excel using the custom filter. C. Apply the custom filter and select the Highlight option D. Use the filter in the Group By function. Correct Answer: C
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This exam is designed for candidates who use Project Standard, Project Professional, and Project Pro for Office 365 desktop features.Candidates should have experience effectively modeling, scheduling, resourcing, communicating, collaborating on, and delivering projects using Project Standard, Project Professional, Project Pro for Office 365, SharePoint, and SharePoint Online. Candidates should also have a solid understanding of key project management concepts and terminology.
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four global groups named Group1, Group2, Group3, and Group4. A user named User1 is a member of Group3. You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains computer accounts. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. OU1 contains a computer account named Computer1. GPO1 has the User Rights Assignment configured as shown in the following table. A. Modify the membership of Group3. B. Modify the membership of Group2. C. Modify the membership of Group1. D. Modify the membership of Group4. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Note: The question is part of a series of questions th?present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2,000 client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed from a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure them as PAWs. You deploy 10 additional computers and configure them by using the customized Windows image. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/security/securing-privileged-access/privileged- access-workstations
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows10. The network uses the 172.16.0.0/16 address space. Computer1 has an application named App1.exe that is located in D:\Apps\. App1.exe is configured to accept connections on TCP port 8080. You need to ensure that App1.exe can accept connections only when Computer1 is connected to the corporate network. Solution: You run the New-NetFirewallRule –DisplayName “Rule1” –Direction Inbound –Program “D:\Apps\App1.exe” –Action Allow -Profile Domain command. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several shielded virtual machines. You deploy a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You need to ensure that you can host shielded virtual machines on Server1. What should you install on Server1? A. Host Guardian Hyper-V Support B. BitLocker Network Unlock C. the Windows Biometric Framework (WBF) D. VM Shielding Tools for Fabric Management Correct Answer: A This questions mentions “The domain contains several shielded virtual machines.”, which indicates a working Host Guardian Service deployment was completed. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded- fabricshielded-vm/guarded-fabricguarded-host-prerequisites For a new Hyper-V server to utilize an existing Host Guardian Service, install the “Host Guardian Hyper-V Support”.
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), you link the GPO to the Servers OU, and then you modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goat? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771990(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 6 Your network has an internal network and a perimeter network. Only the servers on the perimeter network can access the Internet. You create a Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) instance in Microsoft Azure. You deploy Microsoft Monitoring Agent to all the servers on both the networks. You discover that only the servers on the perimeter network report to OMS. You need to ensure that all the servers report to OMS. What should you do? A. Install a Web Application Proxy on the perimeter network and install an OMS Gateway on the internal network. Publish the OMS Gateway from the Web Application Proxy. B. Install a Web Application Proxy and an OMS Gateway on the perimeter network. Publish the OMS Gateway from the Web Application Proxy. C. Configure the network firewalls to allow the internal servers to access the IP addresses of the Azure OMS instance by using TCP port 443. D. On the internal servers, run the Add-AzureRmUsageConnect cmdlet and specify the –AdminUri parameter. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-oms-gateway
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 installed. The domain contains domain controllers that run Windows Server 2016. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is applied to all of the domain controllers. GPO1 has a Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) of 7ABCDEFG-1234-5678-90AB-005056123456. You need to create a new baseline that contains the settings from GPO1. What should you do first? A. Copy the \\\\contoso.com\\sysvol\\contoso.com\\Policies\\{7ABCDEFG-1234-5678-90AB-005056123456} folder to Server1. B. From Group Policy Management, create a backup of GPO1. C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Copy-GPO cmdlet D. Modify the permissions of the \\\\contoso.com\\sysvol\\contoso.com\\Policies\\{7ABCDEFG-1234-5678-90AB-005056123456} Correct Answer: B https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh489604.aspxImport Your GPOsYou can import current settings from your GPOs and compare these to the Microsoft recommended bestpractices.Start with a GPO backup that you would commonly create in the Group Policy Management Console(GPMC).Take note of the folder to which the backup is saved. In SCM, select GPO Backup, browse to the GPOfolder\\’s Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) and select aname for the GPO when it\\’s imported.SCM will preserve any ADM files and GP Preference files (those with non-security settings that SCM doesn\\’tparse) you\\’re storing with your GPO backups.It saves them in a subfolder within the user\\’s public folder. When you export the baseline as a GPO again, italso restores all the associated files.
QUESTION 8 Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan? A. Start-MpWDOScan B. Start-MpScan C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true D. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true Correct Answer: A Some malicious software can be particularly difficult to remove from your PC. Windows Defender Offline (Start- MpWDOScan) can help to find and remove this using up-to-date threat definitions.
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four global groups named Group].., Group2, Group3, and Group4.A user named User1 is a member of Group3. You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains computer accounts. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. OU1 contains a computer account named Computer1. GPO1 has the User Rights Assignment configured as shown in the following table:You need to ensure that User1 can access the shares on Computer1. What should you do? A. Modify the membership of Group1. B. In GPO1, modify the Access this computer from the network user right C. Modify the Deny access to this computer from the network user right. D. Modify the Deny log on locally user right Correct Answer: B You need to ensure that User1 can access the shares on Computer1, from network.If not from network, where would you access a shared folder from? from Mars? from Space? from toilet?Moreover, this question has explicitly state User1 is a member of Group3, and hence it is not possible for User1to logon Computer1 locally to touch those sharedfolders on NTFS file system.Only these two policies to be considered “Access this computer from network”, “Deny access to this computerfrom network”.1There\\’s no option to modify the group member ship of “Group2”, “Administrators”, or “Backup Operators”,so we have to add a 4th entry “User1” to this policy setting “Access this computer from network”.
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group. Server1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in follow:Rule1 and Rule2 are configured as shown in the following table: You verify that User1 is unable to run App2.exe on Server1. Which changes will allow User1 to run D:\\Folder1\\Program.exe and D:\\Folder2\\App2.exe? Choose Two. A. User1 can run D:\\Folder1\\Program.exe if Program.exe is moved to another folder B. User1 can run D:\\Folder1\\Program.exe if Program.exe is renamed C. User1 can run D:\\Folder1\\Program.exe if Program.exe is updated D. User1 can run D:\\Folder2\\App2.exe if App2.exe is moved to another folder E. User1 can run D:\\Folder2\\App2.exe if App2.exe is renamed F. User1 can run D:\\Folder2\\App2.exe if App2.exe is upgraded Correct Answer: AF https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee449492(v=ws.11).aspx For “D:\\Folder1\\Program.exe”, it is originally explicitly denied due to Rule1, when moving the “Program,exe” outof “D:\\Folder1\\”, it does not match Rule1.Assume that “Program.exe” is moved to “D:\\Folder2”, it matches an Explicit Allow rule for group “BUILTIN\\Administrators” which User1 is a member of, therefore Ais correct.For “App2”,exe, it matches a Explicit Deny rule using its File Hash (created File content), no matter where youmove it to, or how you rename it, it would still matchRule2.Only changing the file content of App2.exe would let it no longer match the explicit deny hash-based rule”Rule2″.By upgrading its version and content, it will generate a new hash. so F is correct.
QUESTION 11 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You install the Windows Server Update Services server role on a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2016. You need to ensure that a user named Used can perform the following tasks: *View the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) configuration. *Generate WSUS update reports. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you do on Server1? A. Modify the permissions of the ReportWebService virtual folder from the WSUS Administration website. B. Add User1 to the WSUS Reporters local group. C. Add User1 to the WSUS Administrators local group. D. Run wsusutil.exe and specify the postinstall parameter. Correct Answer: B WSUS Reporters have read only access to the WSUS database and configuration
When a user with “WSUS Reporters” membership, he can view configuration and generate reports as follow:
QUESTION 12 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You plan to create a pilot deployment of Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA). You need to install the ATA Center on Server1. What should you do first? A. Install Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM). B. Obtain an SSL certificate. C. Assign an additional IPv4 address. D. Remove Server1 from the domain. Correct Answer: B https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/ata-prerequisites ATA Center which is the first component to be deployed on Server1, requires the use of SSL protocol tocommunicate with ATA GatewayTo ease the installation of ATA, you can install self-signed certificates during installation.Post deployment you should replace the self-signed with a certificate from an internal Certification Authority tobe used by the ATA Center.Make sure the ATA Center and ATA Gateways have access to your CRL distribution point.If the they don\\’t have Internet access, follow the procedure to manually import a CRL, taking care to install theall the CRL distribution points for the whole chain.
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.The domain contains 1,000 client computers that run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10. You have a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) deployment All client computers receive updates from WSUS. You deploy a new WSUS server named WSUS2. You need to configure all of the client computers that run Windows 10 to send WSUS reporting data to WSUS2. What should you configure? A. an approval rule B. a computer group C. a Group Policy object (GPO) D. a synchronization rule Correct Answer: C https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc708574(v=ws.10).aspxUnder “Set the intranet update service for detecting updates”, type http://wsus:8530Under “Set the intranet statistics server”, type http://wsus2:8531
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Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to
harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and
Guarded Fabric.
Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in
Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure
servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).
Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA),
deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.
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Latest effective Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-461 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 What is the difference between the simple CASE expression and the searched CASE expression? A. The simple CASE expression is used when the database recovery model is simple, and the searched CASE expression is used when it\\’s full or bulk logged. B. The simple CASE expression compares an input expression to multiple possible expressions in the WHEN clauses, and the searched CASE expression uses independent predicates in the WHEN clauses. C. The simple CASE expression can be used anywhere in a query, and the searched CASE expression can be used only in the WHERE clause. D. The simple CASE expression can be used anywhere in a query, and the searched CASE expression can be used only in query filters (ON, WHERE, HAVING). Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition. You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view. B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view. C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause. D. Create a clustered index on the view. Correct Answer: D http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188783.aspx
QUESTION 3 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format. Which Transact-SQL query should you use? A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers=CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS G. SELECT Name AS \\’@Name\\’, Country AS \\’@Country\\’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (\\’Customers\\’) H. SELECT Name AS \\’Customers/Name\\’, Country AS \\’Customers/Country\\’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (\\’Customers\\’) Correct Answer: C Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188273.aspx
QUESTION 4 You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that includes two tables named EmployeeBonus and BonusParameters. The tables are defined by using the following Transact-SQL statements:The tables are used to compute a bonus for each employee. The EmployeeBonus table has a non-null value in either the Quarterly, HalfYearly or Yearly column. This value indicates which type of bonus an employee receives. The BonusParameters table contains one row for each calendar year that stores the amount of bonus money available and a company performance indicator for that year. You need to calculate a bonus for each employee at the end of a calendar year. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use? A. SELECT CAST(CHOOSE((Quarterly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/40, (HalfYearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/20, (Yearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/10) AS money) AS `Bonus\\’ FROM EmployeeBonus, BonusParameters B. SELECT “Bonus” = CASE EmployeeBonus WHEN Quarterly=1 THEN (Quarterly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/40 WHEN HalfYearly=1 THEN (HalfYearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/20 WHEN Yearly=1 THEN (Yearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/10 END FROM EmployeeBonus,BonusParameters C. SELECT CAST(COALESCE((Quarterly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/40, (HalfYearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/20, (Yearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/10) AS money) AS `Bonus\\’ FROM EmployeeBonus, BonusParameters D. SELECT NULLIF(NULLIF((Quarterly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/40,(HalfYearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/20), (Yearly * AvailableBonus * CompanyPerformance)/10) AS `Bonus\\’ FROM EmployeeBonus, BonusParameters Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 You work as a SQL Server 2012 database developer at ABC.com. ABC.com has a database SalesDB with a large Orders table. You create a heap named OldData that will store historical data from the Orders table. You need to write a Transact-SQL query that will insert rows of data from the Orders table that are marked as closed and are more than six months old. Which of the following table hints should you use in your query if you want to optimize transaction logging and locking for the query? A. You should make use of the READPAST hint. B. You should make use of the HOLDLOCK hint. C. You should make use of the READCOMMITTED hint. D. You should make use of the NOLOCK hint. E. You should make use of the TABLOCK hint. F. You should make use of the UPDLOCK hint. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has Trustworthy set to On. You create a stored procedure that returns database-level information from Dynamic Management Views. You grant User1 access to execute the stored procedure. You need to ensure that the stored procedure returns the required information when User1 executes the stored procedure. You need to achieve this goal by granting the minimum permissions required. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.) A. Create a SQL Server login that has VIEW SERVER STATE permissions. Create an application role and a secured password for the role. B. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS OWNER statement. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE permissions to the owner of the stored procedure. C. Create a SQL Server login that has VIEW SERVER STATE permissions. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS {newlogin} statement. D. Grant the db_owner role on the database to User1. E. Grant the sysadmin role on the database to User1. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 7 What levels can an index have? (Choose all that apply.) A. Intermediate level B. Heap level C. Root level D. Leaf level Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 8 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named BlogEntry that has the following columns. Id is the Primary Key. You need to append the “This is in a draft stage” string to the Summary column of the recent 10 entries based on the values in EntryDateTime. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. UPDATE TOP(10) BlogEntry SET Summary.WRITE(N\\’ This is in a draft stage\\’, NULL, 0) B. UPDATE BlogEntry SET Summary = CAST(N\\’ This is in a draft stage\\’ as nvarchar(max)) WHERE Id IN(SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC) C. UPDATE BlogEntry SET Summary.WRITE(N\\’ This is in a draft stage\\’, NULL, 0) FROM ( SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC) AS s WHERE BlogEntry.Id = s.ID D. UPDATE BlogEntrySET Summary.WRITE(N\\’ This is in a draft stage\\’, 0, 0) WHERE Id IN(SELECT TOP(10) Id FROM BlogEntry ORDER BY EntryDateTime DESC) Correct Answer: C According to the append possibility of .Write method when offset is specified as NULL. https://msdn.microsoft.com/en- us/library/ms177523.aspx
QUESTION 9 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named OrdersHistorical. You write the following Transact-SQL query: INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint should you use? A. HOLDLOCK B. ROWLOCK C. XLOCK D. UPDLOCK E. TABLOCK Correct Answer: E Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189857.aspx Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187373.aspx
QUESTION 10 You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2, and Database3. You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must execute other stored procedures in the other databases. You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2 can execute the stored procedure. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use? A. USE Database2 B. EXECUTE AS OWNER C. USE Database1 D. EXECUTE AS CALLER Correct Answer: B http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188354.aspx http://blog.sqlauthority.com/2007/10/06/sql-server-executing- remote-stored-procedure-calling- stored-procedure-on- linked-server/
QUESTION 11 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application. You need to invoke a table-valued function for each row returned by a query. Which Transact-SQL operator should you use? A. CROSS JOIN B. UNPIVOT C. PIVOT D. CROSS APPLY Correct Answer: D Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175156.aspx
QUESTION 12 You have a SQL Server database that contains all of the customer data for your company. You need to extract a random 1,000 row sample from a table Customers. Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position. Correct Answer: TABLESAMPLE SYSTEM (1000 ROWS) Update line 3 to get the following: SELECT * FROM Customers TABLESAMPLE SYSTEM (1000 ROWS) The TABLESAMPLE clause limits the number of rows returned from a table in the FROM clause to a sample number orPERCENT of rows. Syntax: TABLESAMPLE [SYSTEM] (sample_number [ PERCENT | ROWS ] ) References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189108(v=sql.105).aspx
QUESTION 13 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables. Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1? A. DateHired B. DepartmentID C. EmployeeID D. EmployeeNum E. FirstName F. JobTitle G. LastName H. MiddleName I. ReportsToID Correct Answer: C
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Useful Microsoft Office 365 70-347 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)
QUESTION 1
A company uses Skype for Business Online. You use contoso.com as the verified domain name for the Office 365 tenant. Users conduct Skype online meetings. You add fabricam.com to the tenant and configure the tenant to use this domain name.
You need to ensure that all Skype online meeting URLs contain the new domain name.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Update-CsTenantMeetingUrl
B. Set-CsMeetingConfiguration
C. Set-CsUser
D. Set-CsMeetingRoom
E. New-CsSimpleURL
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000.
The company has the following migration requirements:
Move mailboxes in batches.
Do not migrate calendar or contact items. Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You manage client computing devices for a company. Office 365 was recently deployed for all employees in the sales department. Company policy requires the installation of Office 365 ProPlus on all new client computing devices for sales department employees.
The company recently purchased Surface Pro 2 devices for all sales department employees. You are testing a new Office deployment for a specific user on a Surface Pro 2. You are unable to activate Office on the Surface Pro 2. An error message states that the install limit has been reached.
You need to activate Office 365 ProPlus on the Surface Pro 2 for the user.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the user and deactivate unused Office 365 ProPlus licenses.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 admin center as an Office 365 administrator. Remove and then re-add the user’s Office 365 ProPlus license.
C. Install a licensed copy of Office Professional Plus 2013 that is covered under a volume licensing agreement.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 admin center as an Office 365 administrator and deactivate unused Office 365 ProPlus licenses.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You manage an Office 365 tenant that uses an Enterprise E1 subscription. A user takes an extended leave of absence.
The user reports that email messages in the Junk Email folder are deleted before they can read the messages.
You need to ensure that email messages for the user’s Junk Email folder are deleted after 60 days.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run first?
A. Enable-JournalRule
B. New-RetentionPolicyTag
C. Start-ManagedFolderAssistant
D. Set-CsUser
E. Set-CsPrivacyConfiguration
F. Set-HostedContentFilterPolicy
G. Set-MalwareFilterPolicy
H. Set-MailboxJunkEmailConfiguration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Your company subscribes to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan. You are the Microsoft Exchange Online administrator.
In the last week, employees have reported that they are receiving non-delivery report messages from other companies. The employees have not sent messages to recipients within those companies. 70-347 dumps
You need to prevent non-delivery report messages from reaching employees.
Which content filter option should you turn on in the Exchange admin center?
A. NDR backscatter
B. Conditional Sender ID filtering: hard fail
C. SPF record: hard fail
D. Block all bulk email messages
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
All employees at a company have Exchange Online mailboxes.
You observe a surge in email messages that contain malware. You determine that all of the messages originate from a single IP address.
You need to ensure that no email messages from the IP address are delivered to the users.
What should you do?
A. Create a malware filter.
B. Create a connection filter.
C. Create a content filter.
D. Create a new transport rule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You administer Microsoft Exchange Online for Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam’s Exchange Online tenant domain name is fabrikam.onmicrosoft.com.
You verify the domain fabrikam.com in the Office 365 admin center and instruct other administrators to configure new Exchange Online users with fabrikam.com as the primary SMTP domain. The fabrikam.com domain is not federated.
A user reports that his reply-to address is displayed to external email message recipients as [email protected]
You need to configure the user’s mailbox to meet the following requirements:
The user’s reply-to address must be [email protected] The email address [email protected] must function as a secondary email address for the user.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Set MsolUser [email protected] – AlternateEmailAddresses [email protected]
B. Set-Mailbox -Identity [email protected] -ForwardingAddress “User 1”
C. Set-Mailbox -Identity [email protected] – [email protected]
D. Set-Mailbox -Identity [email protected] -EmailAddresses [email protected], [email protected]
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You manage an Office 365 tenant that uses an Enterprise E1 subscription.
You need to ensure that users are informed when Exchange Online Protection quarantines email messages.
A. Enable-JournalRule
B. New-RetentionPolicyTag
C. Start-ManagedFolderAssistant
D. Set-CsUser
E. Set-CsPrivacyConfiguration
F. Set-HostedContentFilterPolicy
G. Set-MalwareFilterPolicy
H. Set-MailboxJunkEmailConfiguration
Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 9
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) organization and a hybrid deployment of office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. All user accounts are hosted onpremises. You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox.
Which tool should you use?
A. the Exchange Control Panel
B. the Set-Mailbox cmdlet
C. the Remove-MailUser cmdlet
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Many employees work in remote locations with intermittent Internet connectivity. Employees must be able to access and reply to email messages, and access calendars, even when their devices are not connected to the Internet.
You need to ensure that employees can access their Microsoft Exchange content offline.
What should you do?
A. Deploy and configure the AppFabric Caching service.
B. Deploy and configure a BranchCache server.
C. Configure the Microsoft OneDrive for Business Windows Sync client for offline access.
D. In Internet Explorer 10, configure Outlook Web App (OWA) for offline access.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees do not have local administrative privileges on client computers.
The company has the following client computer software:
Windows 7 and Windows 8
32-bit and 64-bit Office 2007, Office 2010, and Office 2013
When accessing the corporate Microsoft SharePoint 2010 site, some users are unable to display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view.
You need to ensure that all users can display SharePoint lists in the Datasheet view.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to the latest version of Office 365 ProPlus.
B. Force a reinstallation of Office by using Group Policy and specifying a network location.
C. Uninstall the 64-bit version of Office and then install the 32-bit version of Office.
D. Upgrade all Office 2007 and Office 2010 versions to Office 2013.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You deploy Office 365. All the members of a team named Sales have full access to a shared mailbox named Sales. You enable auditing for all shared mailboxes. From the Sales mailbox, an email message that contains inappropriate content is sent. You need to identify which user sent the message.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange Control Panel, run an administrator role group report.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-SharingPolicy cmdlet.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Write-AdminAuditLog cmdlet.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the New-MailboxAuditLogSearch cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
Some email messages sent from the trusted domain fabrikam.com are being rejected as spam. Some of these email messages originate inside the fabnkam.com network, and some of them originate from an application in the fabrikam.com co-located data center.
The fabrikam.com systems administrators have asked you to add their domain and the IP addresses of the data center that hosts their external application to your list of safe senders.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a content filter to allow the fabrikam.com domain.
B. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the data center IP address range.
C. Create a connection filter to allow the data center IP address range.
D. Add the fabrikam.com domain as an accepted domain.
E. Create an inbound connector for the fabrikam.com domain.
F. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 14
You are the administrator for Contoso, Ltd. You have an Office 365 tenant with Skype for Business Online.
You have an account named [email protected] You configure the account to use the same email address and Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) address.
You need to change the SIP address for the account to [email protected]
What should you do? 70-347 dumps
A. In the Office 365 admin center, change the display name for [email protected] to [email protected]
B. Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
Get-MsolUser serPrincipalName [email protected] | Set-MsolUser serPrincipalName [email protected]
C. In the Office 365 admin center, add the SMTP address [email protected] to [email protected]
D. Run the following Windows PowerShell command: Set- MsolUserPrincipalName serPrincipalName [email protected] ?NewUserPrincipalName [email protected]
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company is running Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 with Service Pack 3 on-premises and has 500 mailboxes.
Management requests that you migrate all mailboxes to Office 365. You are researching the available migration types.
You need to generate a custom step-by-step checklist for multiple migration types.
Which tool should you use?
A. Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
B. Exchange Best Practices Analyzer
C. Exchange 2013 Server Role Requirements Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. All users have been assigned E3 licenses and use Office Web Apps to create and edit documents.
A user attempts to access documents stored on a USB flash drive. When the user double- clicks a file that is stored on the USB flash drive, an error message states that Windows can’t open the file and needs to know what program to use to open it.
You need to ensure that the user can start Office applications and edit Office documents by double-clicking files.
What should you do on the user’s computer?
A. Use Office on Demand.
B. Install Office 365 ProPlus from the Office 365 portal.
C. Copy the files from the USB flash drive to the local hard drive.
D. Install and configure Microsoft Word Viewer.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Any communication to the Internet using a port other than 80 requires a unique firewall rule to be configured.
You successfully deploy Office 365 ProPlus to all users by using Click-to-Run for Office 365. Users install and activate Office 365 ProPlus.
Thirty days after activation, users report that they are unable to edit files by using any Office applications.
You need to ensure that users can edit files.
For which site should you configure a firewall exception?
A. https://activation.sls.microsoft.com
B. https://ols.officeapps.live.com/olsc
C. http://ols.officeapps.live.com/olsc
D. http://officecdn.microsoft.com
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Your company uses Office 365 and has an Enterprise E3 plan. The company has a Microsoft SharePoint Online public website that is currently configured to use the onmicrosoft.com domain name.
The company purchases a new domain name.
You need to change the address of the SharePoint Online public website to the new domain name.
What should you do first?
A. In the SharePoint Online Administration Center, add the new domain.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the new domain.
C. Create a new site collection and assign it the new domain.
D. Create a new public website and assign it to the new domain.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Your company decides to migrate all users to Office 365.
As part of the migration, Office 365 ProPlus will be installed on all client computers and the company will use Office Telemetry. You need to produce a report that contains the information collected by Office Telemetry.
Which three types of information can you include in the report? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Information about files that are not in the Most Recently Used list
B. The names of add-ins and solutions that interact with Office
C. The file names of Office files that are in the Most Recently Used list
D. System information such as user name and computer name
E. The contents of all files that are in the Most Recently Used list
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 20
A company is upgrading from Office 2010 to Office 365 ProPlus. The company plans to use the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues.
You need to enable telemetry and immediately trigger data collection.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Modify the AgentInitWait and AgentRandomDelay registry values on the client computers.
B. Configure a Group Policy Object to turn on telemetry data collection in the User Configuration settings.
C. Configure a Group Policy Object to turn on telemetry data collection in the Computer Configuration settings.
D. Delete the contents of the telemetry shared folder.
E. Run the gpupdate. exe /force command on the file server that hosts the telemetry shared folder.
Correct Answer: AB
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