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Free test Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-475 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts?
A. PHP
B. C#
C. Java
D. Ruby
E. any programming language
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 2
What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract
B. scope private contract
C. scope intertenant contract
D. scope global contract
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services?
A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define theLayer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define
the logical device content, create the service graph.
B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and
information.
C. Create the tenant, define theLayer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical
device content, apply the graph to the contract subject.
D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 6
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peerlink
B. vPC peer keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 8
Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol?
A. OpFlex
B. RIP
C. OpenFlow
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 12
As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your
customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions.
B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations.
C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication.
D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
In Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In Cisco ACI, general steps are
required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done?
1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs.
2) Create policies to define connectivity with permit, deny, log, and so on.
3)Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 15
Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.)
A. host connectivity scalability
B. spine interconnectivity
C. leaf interconnectivity
D. high 40-Gb/s port density
Correct Answer: CD

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[Real Exam Dumps] New Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps PDF Practice Files Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q15)

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New Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. 300-135 dumps Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? (choose two)
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
You have been brought in to troubleshoot an EIGRP network. A network engineer has made configuration changes to the network rendering some locations unreachable. You are to locate the problem and suggest solution to resolve the issue.
300-135 dumps
R5 has become partially isolated from the remainder of the network. R5 can reach devices on directly connected networks but nothing else. What is causing the problem?
A. An outbound distribute list in R3
B. Inbound distribute lists in R5
C. An outbound distribute list in R6
D. Incorrect EIGRP routing process ID in R5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the networkaddressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. Ipv4 OSPF Routing
D. Ipv4 EIGRP Routing.
E. Ipv4 Route Redistribution.
F. Ipv6 RIP Routing
G. Ipv6 OSPF Routing
H. Ipv4 and Ipv6 Interoperability
I. Ipv4 layer 3 security.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. 300-135 dumps After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 2
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
What is a global command?
A. a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to exhibit.
200-125 dumps
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router? 200-125 dumps
A. bootstrap
B. POST
C. mini-IOS
D. ROMMON mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?
A. There is a duplex mismatch.
B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
C. The serial interface is disabled.
D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
F. The interface is fully functioning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
A. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
C. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between two devices in a network?
A. ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM.
B. The ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM
C. APIC-EM automation scheduler.
D. iWAN application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about syslog loging are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Syslog logging is disabled by default
B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. The size of the log file is dependenet on the resources of the device
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a switch?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unkown tagged traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtimeandlt;input type
B. service timestamps debug datetime msecandlt;input type
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtimeandlt;input type
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. ssh
D. telnet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 7)
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply an access-list with no more than three statements that will allow ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
200-125 dumps
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords have been temporarily set to andquot;ciscoandquot;. The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.247.65 The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.240.1 – 192.168.240.254 host A 192.168.240.1 host B 192.168.240.2 host C 192.168.240.3
A. Explanation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learn about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond? 200-125 dumps
A. It sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router.
B. It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors.
C. It disables the routing protocol.
D. It prefers the static route.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
Correct Answer: AE

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200-125 dumps

[Real Exam Dumps] Best Choice Cisco 400-201 Dump Exam Questions And Free Youtube Demo (Q1-Q20)

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400-201 dumps
20 questions and answers for Cisco 400-210 dumps exam

QUESTION 1
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior? 400-201 dumps
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS?
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The NOC engineer noticed that the R2 router system clock is not updated and synchronized to the NTP server that is configured on the R10 router. What is the issue?
A. The access list NTP_Clients is missing.
B. The access group is misconfigured.
C. The maximum number of peers and client associations is exceeded.
D. The authentication key is mismatched.
E. The PE2 router should be configured as an NTP peer instead of as a client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insurescontinuous forwarding during a control plane failure. 400-201 dumps Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. TE FRR
B. IP FRR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. NSR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 16
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources?
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security? 400-201 dumps
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

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[Real Exam Dumps] Best Useful Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Free Shared (Q1-Q15)

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100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update.

QUESTION 2
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source MAC address
E. Destination MAC address
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 4
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
A. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
D. router ospf area 0 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E. router ospf network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F. router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Enabling OSPFSUMMARY STEPS
1.enable
2.configureterminal
3.router ospfprocess-id
4.networkip-addresswildcard-maskareaarea-id
5.end
DETAILED STEPS
Comm

QUESTION 5
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+

QUESTION 6
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory.
A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
Correct Answer: ACF

Explanation:
If port security is enabled and the port is only designated as access port, and finally static MAC address is assigned, it ensures that even if a physical connection is done by taking out the dire. 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port.

QUESTION 9
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged.

QUESTION 10
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. RMON
E. SSH
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
PuTTY is a free implementation of Telnet and SSH for Windows and Unix platforms, and is used to connect to Cisco and other networking devices using SSH or Telnet.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose.

QUESTION 12
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 13
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)
A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces
B. computes the destination host address
C. determines the next hop on the path
D. updates the destination IP address
E. forwards ARP requests
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
A primary function of a router is to forward packets toward their destination. This is accomplished by using a switching function, which is the process used by a router to accept a packet on one in.

QUESTION 14
What is the purpose of flow control? 100-105 dumps
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Flow control is the management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network so that the data can be handled at an efficient pace.

QUESTION 15
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable.

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